Past Papers
CSEC Biology P2 — May/June 2024
CSEC May/June 2024

CSEC Biology — Paper 2 Solutions

Step-by-step worked solutions for the structured-response paper. Free, mobile-friendly, no signup.

Paper 2 (Structured) Section A: 3 questions Section B: 3 questions 100 marks
📄 Need the original paper? Open the PDF →
Question 1

Osmosis experiment with raw potato + salt crystals; diffusion-vs-osmosis examples; xylem & red blood cell structure-and-function. (25 marks)

(a) Draw a large, clearly labelled diagram showing what would be observed from the experiment after two hours. (4 marks)

The set-up uses the raw potato as a "membrane bag" between two solutions: pure (or near-pure) water in the petri dish on the outside, and a very concentrated salt solution forming inside the well as the salt crystals dissolve.

Water has a higher concentration of water molecules in the petri dish than inside the salt-filled well. By osmosis, water moves through the partially permeable membranes of the potato cells, down its water-concentration gradient, from the petri dish → through the potato → into the well.

What you should draw and label after 2 hours:

  • The well now contains a noticeably higher level of salt solution (the salt crystals have dissolved and water has flowed in).
  • The water level in the petri dish has dropped.
  • The raw potato itself looks slightly turgid — its cells have absorbed water and become firmer.
  • Label arrows showing the direction of water movement: petri dish → potato → well.

Marks (typical): 1 for raised solution level in well; 1 for lowered water level in dish; 1 for showing potato as a continuous membrane between the two; 1 for correctly labelled water-movement arrows.

(b)(i) Suggest a suitable title for the experiment in Figure 1. (1 mark)

"An investigation into osmosis using a raw potato as a partially permeable membrane."

(Any title that names the process — osmosis — and the model membrane — potato — is acceptable.)

(b)(ii) Suggest a suitable hypothesis for the experiment in Figure 1. (2 marks)

A hypothesis is a testable prediction stating what is expected to happen and why.

"Water will move by osmosis from the petri dish (high water concentration) through the cell membranes of the raw potato into the salt-filled well (low water concentration), causing the level of liquid in the well to rise."

1 mark for predicting the direction of water movement; 1 mark for explaining it via osmosis / water-concentration gradient.

(c) Suggest TWO ways in which the observations may differ when a boiled potato is used. (2 marks)

Boiling denatures the cell membrane proteins of the potato cells, so the membranes are no longer partially permeable — they leak freely in both directions.

  1. Little or no change in liquid levels. Because the membranes have lost their selective permeability, water and salt can move freely both ways and the net osmotic flow into the well is greatly reduced — no clear rise in the well or fall in the dish.
  2. The boiled potato becomes soft / flaccid rather than firm/turgid; salt may also leak out of the well into the surrounding water (the dish water becomes salty).

1 mark each.

(d) Complete Table 1 — for EACH observation state whether it is diffusion or osmosis and give a reason. (8 marks)
ObservationProcessReason
Amino acids (from digested food) pass across the wall of the small intestine. Diffusion (specifically facilitated diffusion / active transport for some) Amino acids are solute molecules moving from a high concentration in the gut lumen to a lower concentration in the blood capillaries — solute movement, not water movement.
Garden slugs shrivel when salt is sprinkled on them. Osmosis Salt outside the slug creates a hypertonic environment. Water inside the slug's cells moves OUT through their partially permeable membranes, by osmosis, causing the body to lose water and shrivel.
Saltwater fish die when placed in freshwater aquaria. Osmosis Freshwater is hypotonic to the saltwater fish's body fluids. Water rushes into the cells by osmosis, causing them to swell and burst — the fish dies of osmotic shock.
Oxygen moves from the alveoli to the blood. Diffusion Oxygen is a gas / solute molecule moving from a high concentration in the alveolar air to a lower concentration in the deoxygenated blood — gaseous diffusion, not water movement.

1 mark for each correct process + 1 mark for each correct reason = 8 marks.

(e)(i) Explain TWO ways in which the structure of the xylem vessel is uniquely suited for its functions. (4 marks)
StructureExplanation
Hollow tube made of dead cells without end-walls The dead cells are joined end-to-end to form a continuous, unobstructed pipe — water and dissolved minerals can flow upward in an uninterrupted column from roots to leaves with very little resistance.
Walls strengthened with lignin (rings/spirals) Lignin makes the walls rigid and waterproof; this prevents the vessels from collapsing under the negative pressure created by transpiration pull, and stops water leaking out sideways before it reaches the leaves.

2 marks per structure-and-explanation pair.

(e)(ii) Explain TWO ways in which the structure of the red blood cell is uniquely suited for its functions. (4 marks)
StructureExplanation
Biconcave disc shape (no nucleus) Provides a large surface-area-to-volume ratio for rapid diffusion of oxygen in/out of the cell, and the absence of a nucleus leaves more internal space packed with haemoglobin.
Contains the protein haemoglobin Haemoglobin combines reversibly with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin where O₂ is high (lungs) and releases it where O₂ is low (respiring tissues), allowing the cell to transport oxygen efficiently around the body.
Other acceptable point: flexible membrane lets the cell squeeze through the narrowest capillaries. Allows red cells to deliver O₂ deep into tissues and return CO₂ from them.

2 marks per structure-and-explanation pair = 4 marks.

Question 2

Mitosis in a plant cell, sex-determination probability, and haemophilia inheritance. (15 marks)

(a)(i) How many chromosomes are in the parent cell of this plant? (1 mark)

From the diagram (Figure 2), count the number of chromosomes visible at the prophase / metaphase stage where they are clearly distinguishable.

The parent cell contains 4 chromosomes (the typical example used in CSEC mitosis diagrams shows 4 chromosomes / 2 homologous pairs). Mark whatever number is shown by the prophase image.

(a)(ii) Using the letter labels A–E to show order, state the stages in the correct order of mitosis. (2 marks)

The standard sequence of mitosis is: Interphase → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase.

  • Interphase — chromosomes not yet visible (DNA replicated)
  • Prophase — chromosomes condense and become visible
  • Metaphase — chromosomes line up at the equator (cell middle)
  • Anaphase — sister chromatids separate to opposite poles
  • Telophase — two new nuclei form; cell starts to divide (cytokinesis)

Match each labelled diagram (A–E) to one of these stages. Award 2 marks for the fully correct sequence; 1 mark if the order is mostly correct with one slip.

(a)(iii) State TWO reasons why mitosis is important to living organisms. (2 marks)
  1. Growth — mitosis produces new identical body cells, increasing cell number so the organism grows in size.
  2. Repair / replacement of damaged cells — mitosis replaces cells lost through wear and tear (e.g., skin cells, blood cells) with genetically identical copies.
  3. Other valid: asexual reproduction in some plants, fungi and simple animals; healing of wounds.

1 mark each (any two).

(b) List TWO ways by which genetic variation occurs in living organisms. (2 marks)
  1. Mutation — random changes to DNA produce new alleles.
  2. Sexual reproduction (specifically: random fusion of gametes, independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis, and crossing over between homologous chromosomes).

1 mark each.

(c) Determine the accuracy of the statement "the probability of a child being male or female is the same each time a child is conceived." Complete the genetic diagram. (6 marks)

Parents' phenotypes: Male × Female

Parents' genotypes: XY × XX

Gametes: (X, Y) × (X, X)

Offspring genotypes (Punnett square):

X (mother)X (mother)
X (father)XX (female)XX (female)
Y (father)XY (male)XY (male)

Offspring phenotypes: 2 XX (female) : 2 XY (male) → ratio 1 : 1.

Conclusion: Each conception has a 50% chance of producing a male and 50% chance of producing a female — therefore the statement is accurate.

Mark allocation: 1 phenotypes; 1 genotypes; 1 gametes; 2 cross/offspring genotypes; 1 conclusion = 6 marks.

(d) List the TWO possible genotypes of a female whose father is a haemophiliac and whose mother is a carrier. (2 marks)

Haemophilia is X-linked recessive. Use XH for normal allele, Xh for the haemophilia allele.

  • Father (haemophiliac) genotype: XhY — he can only pass on Xh to a daughter.
  • Mother (carrier) genotype: XHXh — she can pass on XH or Xh.

So daughters receive Xh from dad PLUS either XH or Xh from mum:

  1. XHXh — carrier daughter (heterozygous, no symptoms).
  2. XhXh — haemophiliac daughter (homozygous recessive).

1 mark each.

Question 3

Plant food storage and germination. (15 marks)

(a) List TWO substances (other than starch and sugar) stored in plants AND state where each is stored. (4 marks)
Substance StoredSite of Storage in Plant
Oils / LipidsSeeds (e.g., coconut, peanut, sunflower seed cotyledon).
ProteinsSeeds (e.g., aleurone layer of cereal grains; bean cotyledons).
Other accepted: CelluloseCell walls.
Other accepted: InulinRoots/tubers (e.g., dahlia, Jerusalem artichoke).

2 marks for each correct substance + storage-site pair = 4 marks (any two pairs).

(b) State THREE reasons why storing food is important to living organisms. (3 marks)
  1. Energy reserve — provides energy for periods when food intake is low or impossible (e.g., hibernation, dormancy, drought, winter).
  2. Growth and development — stored food fuels the early growth of seedlings before they can photosynthesise, and supports growth at every life stage.
  3. Reproduction — stored food in seeds/eggs nourishes the embryo until it can feed itself.
  4. Other accepted: emergency reserve in extreme conditions; supports tissue repair and immune function.

1 mark each (any three).

(c)(i) Explain the decrease in the amount of protein in the seed as it germinates. (3 marks)

During germination the seed is metabolically very active but cannot photosynthesise yet, so it must mobilise its stored reserves.

  1. Stored proteins are broken down by protease enzymes into amino acids (1 mark).
  2. The amino acids are transported to the embryo / growing regions (1 mark).
  3. They are then used to build new proteins/enzymes for growth, including the new structural proteins of the radicle, plumule and developing leaves (1 mark).

So the protein in storage tissues decreases over time because it is being mobilised, broken down, and reassembled into the seedling's own tissues.

(c)(ii) Explain the change in the level of starch as the seed germinates. (2 marks)

The starch level falls sharply during germination:

  1. The enzyme amylase hydrolyses stored starch into the soluble sugar maltose, then maltase breaks maltose into glucose.
  2. The glucose is used by the embryo for aerobic respiration to release ATP for growth (or for synthesising cellulose for new cell walls).

That is why the starch curve drops while the sugar curve rises during germination.

(c)(iii) Name the sugar which is MOST likely represented in Figure 3. (1 mark)

Glucose (or maltose). Glucose is the primary respiratory sugar produced from starch breakdown during germination.

(c)(iv) Outline ONE reason why starch is the preferred storage material in plants. (2 marks)

Starch is insoluble in water and osmotically inactive. Because it does not dissolve, it does not affect the water potential of the storage cells — large quantities can be stored without causing water to rush in by osmosis (which would otherwise burst the cell). It also stores compactly: a single starch grain holds many glucose units in a small volume, and it is easily broken back down to glucose by amylase when needed.

1 mark for stating the property (insoluble / osmotically inactive); 1 mark for the consequence (storable in bulk without osmotic damage).

Question 4

Aerobic vs anaerobic respiration; oxygen debt after sprinting; effects of smoking. (15 marks)

(a) Write a balanced chemical equation to show the reactants and final products of aerobic respiration. (2 marks)

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy (ATP)

1 mark for correct reactants and products; 1 mark for correct balancing of atoms.

(b) State TWO ways in which aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration. (4 marks)
Aerobic RespirationAnaerobic Respiration
Requires oxygen.Does not require oxygen.
Produces a large amount of energy / ATP per glucose (≈ 38 ATP).Produces only a small amount of energy per glucose (≈ 2 ATP).
Final products: CO2 + H2O.Final products: lactic acid (in animal muscle) or ethanol + CO2 (in yeast/plants).
Glucose is completely oxidised.Glucose is incompletely oxidised.

2 marks per pair of clearly contrasted differences (any two pairs).

(c) Explain why James was feeling intense pain and gasping for air after his race. (4 marks)

During an all-out sprint, James's leg muscles demanded oxygen faster than his lungs and circulation could supply it.

  1. His muscle cells switched to anaerobic respiration, partially breaking down glucose without oxygen and producing lactic acid.
  2. Lactic acid built up in the muscles, lowering pH and causing the burning, cramping pain he felt (1 mark).
  3. After the race he was in oxygen debt — he needed extra oxygen to oxidise the accumulated lactic acid back to CO₂ and H₂O in the liver and muscles.
  4. To repay this oxygen debt his breathing rate and depth increased dramatically — that is why he was gasping, even after he stopped running (1 mark).

Marking guide: 1 mark for switch to anaerobic respiration; 1 mark for naming lactic acid; 1 mark for linking lactic acid to pain; 1 mark for explaining gasping as repayment of oxygen debt.

(d)(i) Explain TWO negative effects that smoking for ten years would have had on Mr Smith's health. (4 marks)
  1. Lung damage / Chronic bronchitis & emphysema. Tar in cigarette smoke paralyses and destroys the cilia that line the airways, so mucus and pathogens accumulate, causing a "smoker's cough", repeated chest infections and chronic bronchitis. Nicotine and other chemicals also break down the walls of alveoli (emphysema), reducing the surface area for gas exchange and leading to breathlessness.
  2. Cardiovascular disease. Nicotine raises blood pressure and heart rate; carbon monoxide reduces the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity by binding to haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin. Together these increase the risk of coronary heart disease, atherosclerosis, heart attack and stroke.
  3. Other accepted: increased risk of lung cancer (and other cancers — mouth, throat, oesophagus, bladder); reduced fertility; weakened immune system.

2 marks per effect: 1 for naming, 1 for explanation. Any two = 4 marks.

(d)(ii) Suggest ONE action that governments can take to address smoking on a national level. (1 mark)

Any one of:

  • Increase taxes on tobacco products to make cigarettes more expensive and reduce consumption.
  • Ban smoking in public spaces (workplaces, restaurants, parks).
  • Mandate graphic health warnings and plain packaging on cigarette packs.
  • Ban tobacco advertising and sponsorship.
  • Public-education campaigns + free smoking-cessation programmes.
  • Raise the legal age for purchasing tobacco.
Question 5

Stimulus and response, the knee-jerk reflex arc, behaviour of millipedes, and effects of artificial lighting on Daphnia. (15 marks)

(a) Define EACH term: (i) Stimulus, (ii) Response. (2 marks)

(i) Stimulus: a change in the internal or external environment that is detected by a receptor and produces a reaction in an organism.

(ii) Response: the reaction or change in behaviour or activity of an organism brought about by a stimulus.

1 mark each.

(b)(i) Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D on the knee-jerk reflex arc. (4 marks)

The standard reflex arc — receptor → sensory neurone → relay (interneuron, in spinal cord) → motor neurone → effector — is labelled across the diagram. Common assignments:

  • A — Receptor (stretch receptor in patellar tendon) — detects the stimulus (sharp tap).
  • B — Sensory neurone — carries the impulse from the receptor to the spinal cord.
  • C — Spinal cord / relay neurone — synapses with the motor neurone (no brain involvement → reflex).
  • D — Motor neurone (or effector / quadriceps muscle) — carries the impulse to the muscle, which contracts to kick the leg.

1 mark per correct label = 4 marks.

(b)(ii) Suggest ONE biological reason why Timothy did not have the expected knee-jerk reflex. (1 mark)

Any one of:

  • Damage to the reflex arc — e.g. injury to the sensory or motor neurone, or to the spinal cord at the level that controls the knee.
  • Damaged / detached patellar tendon so the stretch receptor was not activated.
  • Tense / contracted quadriceps muscle (he was not relaxed), so the stretch receptor was not stretched by the tap.
  • A nervous-system disease (e.g., peripheral neuropathy) interfering with impulse conduction.
(c) Explain the response of millipedes to any TWO stimuli that may be present in the basement. (6 marks)

Millipedes show taxes — directional movements towards or away from a stimulus. Pick any two of the stimuli you would expect in a basement and link them to the taxis:

StimulusTaxis & Explanation
Light (artificial or daylight leaking in)Negative phototaxis — millipedes move away from light, towards dark corners. The basement provides darkness, protecting them from drying out and from predators that hunt by sight.
Moisture / humidityPositive hydrotaxis — millipedes move towards damp areas. Damp basements prevent them from desiccating because their cuticle is poor at retaining water.
Food (decaying organic matter)Positive chemotaxis — millipedes are attracted to chemical cues from rotting leaves, mulch, or wood, which they eat as detritivores.
Temperature (cool basement)Negative thermotaxis from hot, dry surfaces toward the cooler, more humid basement which prevents overheating and water loss.

3 marks per stimulus: 1 for naming the stimulus, 1 for naming the type of taxis (positive/negative), 1 for explaining the survival benefit. Any two stimuli = 6 marks.

(d) Suggest TWO consequences of the disruption to the water ecosystem caused by artificial lighting. (2 marks)
  1. Daphnia stay deeper / hidden. Because Daphnia normally come up to the surface in the dark to feed on algae, artificial lighting suppresses this migration — they do not feed properly, populations fall, and predator fish that depend on them lose a food source.
  2. Algal blooms. With Daphnia no longer grazing the surface algae at night, algae multiply unchecked. This can lead to algal blooms that block sunlight, deplete dissolved oxygen at night, and kill fish and other aquatic life — disrupting the entire food web.

1 mark each.

Question 6

Birth control methods + HIV/AIDS statistics in the Caribbean. (15 marks)

(a) List FOUR birth control methods. (4 marks)
  1. Condom (male or female) — barrier method.
  2. Combined oral contraceptive pill — hormonal.
  3. Intrauterine device (IUD/coil) — long-acting.
  4. Tubal ligation (female sterilisation) or vasectomy (male sterilisation) — surgical.
  5. Other accepted: diaphragm, cervical cap, contraceptive injection (Depo-Provera), implant, abstinence, rhythm/calendar method, withdrawal.

1 mark each.

(b) Outline how any TWO of the methods listed in (a) work to prevent pregnancy. (2 marks)
  1. Condom — a thin latex or polyurethane sheath that physically blocks sperm from entering the vagina (or, for the female condom, from reaching the cervix), preventing fertilisation. Bonus: also reduces the spread of sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
  2. Oral contraceptive pill — contains synthetic oestrogen and/or progesterone; these hormones suppress ovulation (so no egg is released), thicken cervical mucus (so sperm cannot pass), and thin the uterus lining (so any fertilised egg cannot implant).

1 mark per outline. Other valid methods: tubal ligation cuts the Fallopian tubes so eggs and sperm cannot meet; the IUD prevents implantation/fertilisation; abstinence prevents sperm from entering the vagina.

(c)(i) Calculate the percentage of HIV-positive persons in the Caribbean who did NOT access treatment in 2020. (2 marks)

Total people living with HIV = 330 000. People accessing treatment = 220 000. People NOT accessing treatment = 330 000 − 220 000 = 110 000.

Percentage = (110 000 / 330 000) × 100 = 33.3% (1 dp) — about one-third of HIV-positive Caribbean people were not on treatment in 2020.

1 mark for setting up the correct fraction; 1 mark for the answer.

(c)(ii) Suggest TWO reasons why people, despite having HIV, may not access treatment. (4 marks)
  1. Stigma and discrimination — fear of being identified as HIV-positive by family, employers or community can stop people from going to clinics, especially in small Caribbean towns where confidentiality is hard to maintain. (2 marks: 1 for the reason, 1 for the explanation.)
  2. Financial / access barriers — cost of clinic visits and follow-up tests; long travel distances to ARV-supply centres; no transport; no health insurance. (2 marks)
  3. Other accepted: denial of diagnosis; lack of knowledge that effective treatment exists; side-effects of antiretrovirals; religious or cultural beliefs that favour alternative remedies; unstable supply of medication.

2 marks per reason × 2 = 4 marks.

(c)(iii) Explain why persons with AIDS may die as a result of an opportunistic (secondary) infection. (3 marks)
  1. HIV specifically attacks and destroys helper T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells), the white blood cells that coordinate the body's immune response (1 mark).
  2. As CD4 numbers fall, the immune system is severely weakened (immunodeficiency) and can no longer mount an effective response against pathogens (1 mark).
  3. Microbes that healthy people fight off easily — like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Pneumocystis jirovecii, fungi, or other viruses — now cause severe, uncontrollable infections (e.g., TB, pneumonia). It is these opportunistic infections, not HIV itself, that are usually the immediate cause of death (1 mark).
Solutions generated by Kairu — Student Hub's AI system, trained by The Student Hub. AI can make mistakes — always cross-check tricky answers with your teacher and class notes.